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End Times Chart

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AD70 Dispensationalism: According to that view, AD70 was the end of 'this age' and the start of the 'age to come'.    Those who lived before AD70 could only 'see in part' and such, lacking the resurrection and redemptive blessings which supposedly came only when Herod's Temple in Jerusalem fell.    Accordingly, AD70 was not only the end of Old Testament Judaism, but it was also the end of the revelation of Christianity as seen in the New Testament.


"Full preterist" material is being archived for balanced representation of all preterist views, but is classified under the theological term hyper (as in beyond the acceptable range of tolerable doctrines) at this website.  The classification of all full preterism as Hyper Preterism (HyP) is built upon well over a decade of intense research at, and the convictions of the website curator (a former full preterist pastor).  The HyP theology of final resurrection and consummation in the fall of Jerusalem, with its dispensational line in AD70 (end of old age, start of new age), has never been known among authors through nearly 20 centuries of Christianity leading up to 1845, when the earliest known full preterist book was written.  Even though there may be many secondary points of agreement between Historical/Modern Preterism and Hyper Preterism, their premises are undeniably and fundamentally different.


Systematic Hyper Preterism
(aka "Full Preterism")

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Hyper Preterism: Defining "Hyper Preterism"- Criticisms from the Inside - Criticisms from the Outside || Progressive Pret | Regressive Pret | Former Full Preterists | Pret Scholars | Normative Pret | Reformed Pret | Pret Idealism | Pret Universalism

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It is important to keep in mind that many ideas and doctrines full preterism appeals to - such as the complete end of the Old Covenant world in AD70 - are by no means distinctive to that view.   Many non HyPs believe this as well, so one need not embrace the Hyper Preterist system in order to endorse this view.   Following are exceptional doctrines which, so far as I've seen, are only taught by adherents of Hyper Preterism.:


  • All Bible Prophecy was Fulfilled By AD70

  • Atonement Incomplete at Cross ; Complete at AD70

  • The Supernatural Power of Evil Ended in AD70

  • The Spirit of Antichrist was Destroyed in AD70

  • "The Consummation of the Ages" Came in AD70

  • "The Millennium" is in the Past, From AD30 to AD70

  • Nothing to be Resurrected From in Post AD70 World ; Hades Destroyed

  • The Christian Age Began in AD70 ; Earth Will Never End

  • "The Day of the Lord" was Israel's Destruction ending in AD70

  • The "Second Coming" of Jesus Christ Took Place in AD70-ish

  • The Great Judgment took place in AD70 ; No Future Judgment

  • The Law, Death, Sin, Devil, Hades, etc. Utterly Defeated in AD70

  • "The Resurrection" of the Dead and Living is Past, Having Taken Place in AD70

  • The Context of the Entire Bible is Pre-AD70 ; Not Written To Post AD70 World

(under construction)

  • Baptism was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)

  • The Lord's Prayer was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)

  • The Lord's Supper was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)

  • The Holy Spirit's Paraclete Work Ceased in AD70 (Cessationism)

  • The Consummation in AD70 Caused Church Offices to Cease (Cessationism)

  • The Resurrection in AD70 Changed the "Constitutional Principle" of Marriage (Noyesism)

  • Israel and Humanity Delivered into Ultimate Liberty in AD70 (TransmillennialismTM)

  • The Judgment in AD70 Reconciled All of Mankind to God ; All Saved (Preterist Universalism)

  • Adam's Sin No Longer Imputed in Post AD70 World ; No Need to be Born Again (Preterist Universalism)

  • When Jesus Delivered the Kingdom to the Father in AD70, He Ceased Being The Intermediary (Pantelism/Comprehensive Grace?)

  • The Book of Genesis is an Apocalypse; is About Creation of First Covenant Man, not First Historical Man (Covenantal Preterism)


The Times of the Gentiles

By Dan Delagrave

At All Silly Costs

"And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled." (Luke 21:24)

 There has been much misunderstanding in the modern Church concerning "the times of the Gentiles." In this article I will seek to give an interpretation that is consistent with both the immediate context and the greater weight of scripture.

 Many commentators today equate "the times of the Gentiles" with "the fullness of the Gentiles" mentioned by the Apostle Paul in Romans 11:25. In fact, most all reference Bibles make this connection in the margins. But mixing these verses together is strange indeed, since "the times of the Gentiles" refers to the treading down of Jerusalem by Gentile armies, while "the fullness of the Gentiles" refers to the salvation of the Gentiles. The truth is, there is no connection whatsoever between the times of the Gentiles and the fullness of the Gentiles, as they are speaking of two completely different things.

 It is also commonly taught that the times of the Gentiles refers to the historical period of Gentile control over Jerusalem beginning with the Babylonian captivity in 586 B.C. and ending in 1967, when Israel took East Jerusalem from the Arabs in the Six-Day War. Oddly, those who say that the times of the Gentiles ended in 1967 go on to say that a Gentile dictator from a "Revived Roman Empire" will soon sit in a "rebuilt temple", proclaiming himself to be God. This Gentile dictator and his Gentile army will seek to annihilate the Jews after breaking a false 7-year peace treaty at the midpoint, so the theory goes. But if this projection is true, we must ask ourselves: How was the times of the Gentiles "fulfilled" in 1967?

 Today, there are some 450,000 "Gentiles" living in Jerusalem. The present "intifada" was touched off when Ariel Sharon made a visit to the Temple Mount a few years ago. What's this saying? The popular dispensational interpretations of the times of the Gentiles simply don't add up!

 Dispensationalists simply impose a preconceived understanding on the term without any exegesis of the context, or parallel support found elsewhere in the Bible. Their appeal to 1967 truly epitomizes what is called "newspaper exegesis". But will we allow the Word of God to speak for itself??

 "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled." (Luke 21:32)

 The times of the Gentiles has to be kept in it's proper historical context. Jesus said that "all", including the times of the Gentiles, would be fulfilled before his contemporary generation had passed. Dispensationalists go outside the box of "this generation" in order to teach a futuristic view of Christ's coming. To do that they have to redefine both "the times of the Gentiles" and "this generation". Needless to say, their "1948 generation" has proven to be more than just a little embarrassing.

 "And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh . . . and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled." (Luke 21:20, 24)

 The times of the Gentiles referred to the treading down, or desolation, of first century Jerusalem, which Jesus called "the days of vengeance". In other words, it was God's mission for the Gentiles to bring judgment upon Jerusalem. This is consistent with past judgments upon Israel, when God brought Gentiles armies into their land to desolate it.

 The whole controversy centers on the duration of the treading down of Jerusalem. The Greek for "trodden" is pat-eh'-o (#3961 in Strong's Concordance), and it means "to trample down underfoot". The parallel to Lk.21:24 is seen in Revelation 11:2, which says:

 "But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot (pateho) forty and two months."

 Could it be any plainer? The times of the Gentiles, or treading down of Jerusalem, entailed no more than a forty two month period of time, the exact duration of the Jewish-Roman War. This is in perfect harmony with Daniel 12:7, where the defining characteristic of "the time of the end" is said to be "the scattering of the power of the holy people", which we are told would be accomplished during "a time, times, and a half", or forty two months.

 Furthermore, when we consider the mountain of evidence for a pre-70 dating of Revelation, in addition to the statements of imminence in the book itself (1:1, 3; 22:6, 7, 10, 12), then the forced conclusion is that the forty two months was fulfilled in the 66-70 A.D. Jewish-Roman War.

 In the ancient Near East, the ultimate image of triumph over an enemy was the positioning of the enemy "under the feet" of the conqueror. This was a literal custom in Biblical times read Joshua 10:24; 2 Kings 7:17, 20, 9:33; Isaiah 14:19 as well as a metaphor for dominion, conquering, possession, judgment, shame, defilement, oppression, and victory read Deuteronomy 11:24; Judges 20:43; 1 Kings 5:3; Joshua 14:9; Psalms 18:38; 47:3; 74:21; 110:1; Lamentations 1:15; 3:34; Isaiah 14:25; 41:2; 63:6; 66:1; Jeremiah 25:30; Daniel 8:7; Joel 3:13; Amos 2:6-7; 4:13; Micah 1:3; 5:5-6; Malachi 4:3; Matthew 7:6; Mark 12:36; Luke 20:43; Acts 2:35; Romans 16:20; I Corinthians 15:25; Ephesians 1:22; Hebrews 1:13; 2:8; 10:13; Revelation 19:15. The Greek word for "tread" in Revelation 11:2 is the same word Luke used for "trodden" (pat-eh'-o) in Luke 21:24.

 Jerusalem's first century desolation represented the time when Christ put his enemies read I Thessalonians 2:15-16 under his feet. This was accomplished during a forty two month period which Jesus called "the times of the Gentiles".

What do YOU think ?

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30 Jan 2004


I just read the article explaining the times of the Gentiles. I understand it to say that it is the 42-month period during 66-70 A.D. But I'm a little confused about the timing. If the Gentiles (Romans) conquered the city in 70 A.D., then wouldn't the times of the Gentiles start in 70 A.D. Before that time, the armies merely surrounded the city, and after that time they trampled the city. So I'm confused as to the actual timing of this. I'll appreciate your clarification. Allen Beechick

31 May 2004


Question: What if the 42 month period of time presented itself BEFORE the Jewish Roman War? What it it is shown to be in the time period provided in Matthew 1:17, "So all the generations from Abraham to David are 14 generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon are 14 generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ are 14 generations." If all were fulfilled in "that generation" of disciples, would this fullfillment not have meant ALL completed when Herod occupied the Temple as "the abomination" that maketh desolate; before he was exiled to another country? Wasn't it Herod and his armies which encompassed Jerusalem as the outside court of Gentiles? What was the indicator for those Christ followers in Jerusalem to flee? Wasn't it Herod who was killing all the Christians? Wasn't it Herod who was standing in the holy place, the Temple, "as God"?


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