SOME DISTINCTIVE DOCTRINES OF SYSTEMATIZED
It is important to keep in mind that many ideas and doctrines
full preterism appeals to - such as the complete end of the Old
Covenant world in AD70 - are by no means distinctive to that view.
Many non HyPs believe this as well, so one need not embrace the Hyper
Preterist system in order to endorse this view. Following
are exceptional doctrines which, so far as I've seen, are only taught by
adherents of Hyper Preterism.:
DISTINCTIVE DOCTRINES TAUGHT BY STANDARD
All Bible Prophecy was Fulfilled By AD70
Atonement Incomplete at Cross ;
Complete at AD70
The Supernatural Power of Evil
Ended in AD70
The Spirit of Antichrist was
Destroyed in AD70
"The Consummation of the Ages"
Came in AD70
"The Millennium" is in the Past, From
AD30 to AD70
Nothing to be Resurrected From
in Post AD70 World ; Hades Destroyed
The Christian Age Began in AD70
; Earth Will Never End
"The Day of the Lord" was Israel's
Destruction ending in AD70
The "Second Coming" of Jesus
Christ Took Place in AD70-ish
The Great Judgment took place
in AD70 ; No Future Judgment
The Law, Death, Sin, Devil,
Hades, etc. Utterly Defeated in AD70
of the Dead and Living is Past, Having Taken
Place in AD70
The Context of the Entire Bible
is Pre-AD70 ; Not Written To Post AD70 World
DISTINCTIVE DOCTRINES TAUGHT BY VARIOUS FORMS
Baptism was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)
The Lord's Prayer was for Pre-AD70
The Lord's Supper was for Pre-AD70
The Holy Spirit's Paraclete Work
Ceased in AD70 (Cessationism)
The Consummation in AD70 Caused
Church Offices to Cease (Cessationism)
The Resurrection in AD70 Changed
the "Constitutional Principle" of Marriage (Noyesism)
Israel and Humanity Delivered into
Ultimate Liberty in AD70 (TransmillennialismTM)
The Judgment in AD70 Reconciled All
of Mankind to God ; All Saved (Preterist Universalism)
Adam's Sin No Longer Imputed in
Post AD70 World ; No Need to be Born Again (Preterist Universalism)
When Jesus Delivered the Kingdom to
the Father in AD70, He Ceased Being The Intermediary (Pantelism/Comprehensive
The Book of Genesis is an
Apocalypse; is About Creation of First Covenant Man, not First Historical
Man (Covenantal Preterism)
By David B. Curtis
We come this morning in our study of Colossians to verse 20 of
chapter 1. This verse has been used to support the doctrine of
universalism. So in our time this morning we are going to look at
the doctrine of universalism and see what the Scriptures have to say
about it. I have been hearing of more and more people who are
turning to this erroneous doctrine, so I would like to address it.
What is Universalism?
Let's begin with a definition: Universalism is the teaching that
God, through the atonement of Jesus, will ultimately bring
reconciliation between God and all people throughout history. This
reconciliation will occur regardless of whether they have trusted in
or rejected Jesus as savoir during their lifetime. As with any
doctrine, there are many varieties of universalism. For example,
there is the belief in Conditional Immortality, which holds that an
opportunity will be given after death for the acceptance of Christ,
that acceptance will mean salvation, while rejection will be
followed by extinction. There are, however, certain ideas common to
every form of universalism: they all view the character of God as
animated by sheer benevolence rather than by a holy love.
Belief in universal salvation is almost as old as Christianity
itself and may be associated with early Gnostic teachers. The first
clearly universalist writings, however, date from the Greek church
fathers, most notably Clement of Alexandria, his student Origen, and
Gregory of Nyssa. Universalism was taught in the School that Origen
presided over at Alexandria in the extreme form that all fallen
beings, not excluding the Devil and his angels, who do not repent in
this world, shall pass through prolonged chastisement in the world
to come. In the end, through these sufferings and the instruction of
superior spirits, they will undergo a change and be brought to
bliss. Origen's views were strongly opposed by Augustine of Hippo
and were condemned by the Council of Constantinople (A.D. 543). At
the Reformation the sect known as Anabaptists adopted this view as
regards both men and devils, and John Calvin wrote a tract
This doctrine is congenial to human nature. Most unbelievers think
that when someone dies they go to heaven. What do people usually say
when they lose a loved one? "We know they're in a better place now."
This doctrine goes back to what the serpent had to say to our first
parents: "Ye shall not surely die." God says that sin leads to
death, but we don't want to believe that, we'd rather believe the
Universalists all quote Scripture texts in support of their views,
and by the manipulation of texts removed from their context, they
make out a plausible case for the positions they hold. There are
many verses that use "all" and "world" in relation to redemption.
When looking at these verses, we must keep in mind the primary rule
of hermeneutics, the "analogy of faith" - the rule that Scripture is
to interpret Scripture. This means that no part of Scripture can be
interpreted in such a way as to render it in conflict with what is
clearly taught elsewhere in Scripture.
Let's begin our study by looking at our text in Colossians:
Colossians 1:20 (NKJV) and by Him to reconcile all things to
Himself, by Him, whether things on earth or things in heaven, having
made peace through the blood of His cross.
Is Paul teaching universalism, namely, that all creatures will
eventually be saved and none will be punished forever? Does this
mean that one day God will reconcile to himself all unbelievers who
have ever lived and even the devil? I don't think so. What is this
verse saying then? Let me try to explain:
Colossians 3:10-11 (NKJV) and have put on the new man who is renewed
in knowledge according to the image of Him who created him, 11 where
there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcised nor uncircumcised,
barbarian, Scythian, slave nor free, but Christ is all and in all.
Paul is describing Christians as people who have "put on the new
man, who is renewed in knowledge according to the image of Him who
created him." Then verse 11 begins with the word "where" to show
that what he is about to say is limited in its scope to the sphere
of this renewed humanity he was just asking about in verse 10.
He says, "Here there cannot be Greek and Jew, circumcised and
uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave, free man; but Christ is
all, and in all." Now if you took the sentence" Christ is all and in
all" by itself, you might say that it taught universalism: "Christ
is all and in all human beings without exception." But we know that
is not what he means, because the verse begins with "where" - that
is here in the sphere of the church; "here" - in the new humanity
that Christ is creating, He is all and in all.
This is the way I think we are to understand Colossians 1:20. Look
how the paragraph is organized. The scope of verse 15-17 is all
creation. The whole universe is in view. And the point is that
Christ is preeminent over all creation, because He made it and he
holds it all together.
But then in verses 18-21, the focus shifts and the scope is no
longer the whole universe but the new creation, namely the church.
Notice how verse 18 turns from creation to the church: "He is the
head of the body, the church." in this context of the church, we
read verse 20, that "he will reconcile all things to himself in
heaven and on earth." So I think the "all things" in verse 20 should
be limited the same way the "all" in 3:11 was limited - to the
Let me share with you excerpts from an e-mail that I recently
Let me say first and foremost, I thank God Almighty for you! Your
teaching has greatly blessed me and my family and several of my friends
who are open to receiving truth. I am praying for you and your family
that God continues to give you wisdom AND the strength to boldly pursue
the truth that God reveals to you.
The feast series, WOW! Wonderful eye opening stuff for me! And many of
the other sermons too.... That being said, I hope that your paradigm
shift is not over.
I learned many months ago, and finally came to the glorious
understanding of the love that God has for his creation, when the truth
was revealed to me that Jesus IS the savoir of the world. Not maybe, or
can be, but is!
We can add nothing to Jesus' act on the cross to save us, NOT EVEN
BELIEF. Belief/faith is of God and God is the dispenser of it.
The problem with all the belief passages is that when someone finally
REALIZES or "Believes" what Jesus ALREADY did for them, they have great
Joy in knowing the Lord God loves them to the point of not failing,
because the bible declares that "God is love", and that "love never
fails". Belief is not a "requirement" to be returned back to God in
spirit when you die. Belief is that thing that gives us joy RIGHT NOW,
KNOWING that it has been accomplished, that the works of the Devil have
been undone, and that Jesus is the savoir of the world.
When the bible says believe on the Lord Jesus, it can be understood to
mean, "Trust me, I am telling the truth, God loves you and HAS redeemed
you, this you can have confidence in and believe!"
It's not a very good Gospel to say, "Jesus saved you, BUT...only if you
believe. If you don't believe how much He loves you, then he really
doesn't care about you, so its off to the lake of fire with you to
suffer forever and ever!"
Not even Satan could be that evil. That would make God out to be the
most horrible being imaginable. "I love you, and this was how much, but
if you don't believe it then, good-bye."
1 Tim 4:10 ...savoir of ALL men, especially to those who believe! Not
ONLY to those who believe.
You can't be the savoir of the world and not save the world. You can't
be the father of 10 children, but you only have 5.
Anyway, I have attached a file with many scriptures to which one would
have to make the word ALL or WORLD mean some or few in every case. That
just can't be done.
Our God is infinitely greater and more loving than we ever could be. A
literal eternal lake of fire for non-believers is not the truth. God's
fire is a refining fire! A purifying fire! (If a lake a fire isn't
apocalyptic language, then I don't know what is).
Let me begin by saying that my paradigm shift to preterism was due to
the overwhelming evidence in Scripture that the Lord had, in fact,
returned in the first century generation. When it comes to the subject
of universalism, I find the Scriptural evidence overwhelmingly against
it, as I hope to show.
This man does a good job giving the universalist's position, so I want
to examine what he says against the Bible. He says, "I learned many
months ago, and finally came to the glorious understanding of the love
that god has for his creation, when the truth was revealed to me that
Jesus IS the savoir of the world. Not maybe, or can be, but is!....It's
not a very good Gospel to say, 'Jesus saved you, BUT...only if you
believe. If you don't believe how much he loves you, then he really
doesn't care about you, so its off to the lake of fire with you to
suffer forever and ever!'...Not even Satan could be that evil. That
would make God out to be the most horrible being imaginable. 'I love
you, and this was how much, but if you don't believe it then,
What is his basic presupposition? It is that God loves everybody, is it
not? To show that this is a universalist position, let me give you a
couple of quotes from the web site, "Plan Guide to Universalism" (
We believe there is one God, whose nature is love; revealed in one Lord
Jesus Christ, by one Holy Spirit of grace, who will finally restore the
whole family of mankind to holiness and happiness.
God is love, and love worketh no ill. 'God is love'. (1 John 4:8) 'Love
Worketh no ill'. (Rom. 13:10) This is a very forcible argument. God's
nature is the very essence of benevolence, and benevolence cannot be the
origin of endless evil. If love worketh no ill, God can work no ill,
and, therefore, God cannot be the author of endless evil.
God loves all mankind. 'For God so loved the world that he gave his only
begotten Son' (John 3:16), and, as Jesus died for all men, so God loves
all men. This argument adds great force to the last.
So the main presupposition of universalism is that God loves everybody.
Does the Bible teach that God loves everybody? NO, it does not!
Romans 9:13 (NKJV) As it is written, "Jacob I have loved, but Esau I
Paul is quoting from Malachi:
Malachi 1:2-3 (NKJV) "I have loved you," says the LORD. "Yet you say,
'In what way have You loved us?' Was not Esau Jacob's brother?" Says the
LORD. "Yet Jacob I have loved; 3 But Esau I have hated, And laid waste
his mountains and his heritage For the jackals of the wilderness."
Some say that what Paul is talking about here is the election of a
nation as over against nations, and not election of individuals. That's
really a foolish argument. If it is unjust for God to select one man
over another, why is it okay if he selects one nation over another?
Aren't nations made up of individuals?
The quotation from Malachi 1:2 is in reference to the nations that
descended from Jacob and Esau, respectfully, Israel and Edom. The
prophet is here reproving the Jews for their ingratitude. As a proof of
his peculiar favor, God refers to his preference for them from the first
Some try to twist it by saying that hate doesn't mean hate, but it means
to "love less," or "to regard and treat with less favor." Hate is used
in this way in several passages:
Luke 14:26 (NKJV) "If anyone comes to Me and does not hate his father
and mother, wife and children, brothers and sisters, yes, and his own
life also, he cannot be My disciple.
Here hate would have the idea of "to regard with less favor." But in the
original context of Malachi 1:1-5, loving less hardly fits with the
visitation of judgement:
Malachi 1:3-4 (NKJV) But Esau I have hated, And laid waste his mountains
and his heritage For the jackals of the wilderness." 4 Even though Edom
has said, "We have been impoverished, But we will return and build the
desolate places," Thus says the LORD of hosts: "They may build, but I
will throw down; They shall be called the Territory of Wickedness, And
the people against whom the LORD will have indignation forever.
"Jacob have I loved." God is sovereign in the exercise of His love. What
I mean is that He loves whom he chooses to, God does not love everybody.
Now I know that when I say that, people get upset, but it is clearly
what the Word of God teaches. He didn't love Esau, that is very clear.
Now how will you argue, will you say that He loves everyone but Esau?
One of the most popular beliefs of our day is that God loves everybody.
But the idea that God loves everybody is a modern belief. The writings
of the church fathers, the Reformers or the Puritans will be searched in
vain for any such concept. The fact is that the love of God is a truth
for the saints only. With the exception of John 3:16, not once in the
four gospels do we read of the Lord Jesus Christ telling sinners that
God loved them. In the book of Acts, which records the evangelistic
labors and messages of the apostles, God's love is never referred to at
all. Does that seem odd to you? But when we come to the Epistles, which
are addressed to the saints, we have a full presentation of the truth:
Hebrews 12:6 (NKJV) For whom the LORD loves He chastens, And scourges
every son whom He receives."
God's love is restricted to the members of His own family. If He loves
all men, then the distinction and limitation here mentioned is quite
meaningless. God only chastens who He loves, which is a reference to
believers, the elect.
What about John 3:16? Does it teach that God loves everybody? It seems
John 3:16 (NKJV) "For God so loved the world that He gave His only
begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have
Doesn't this prove that God loves everybody? No, remember, He hated
Esau. You must admit the Bible says that. Let's put it in the form of a
Major premise: God hated Esau
Minor premise: Esau is part of the world
Conclusion: God doesn't love everyone in the world.
The word "world" here is not used to mean the entire human race. Do you
Amos 3:2 (NKJV) "You only have I known of all the families of the earth;
Therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities."
Why did God only have a special relationship with Israel and leave all
the other nations to walk in darkness? Because He didn't love them, and
He loved Israel.
The word "world" often has a relative, rather than an absolute, meaning.
John 12:19 (NKJV) The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, "You
see that you are accomplishing nothing. Look, the world has gone after
Was everyone in the world going after Jesus? No!
Acts 19:27 (NKJV) "So not only is this trade of ours in danger of
falling into disrepute, but also the temple of the great goddess Diana
may be despised and her magnificence destroyed, whom all Asia and the
Did everyone in the world worship Diana? No!
Romans 1:8 (NKJV) First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you
all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.
Was everyone in the world speaking of the faith of the Roman believers?
I don't think so.
In John 3 Jesus is speaking to Nicodemus, a Jew. The Jews believed that
God loved only them. What John 3:16 is saying is that God's love is
international in its scope, He loves Gentiles as well as Jews.
John 6:33 (NKJV) "For the bread of God is He who comes down from heaven
and gives life to the world."
He didn't say offers life, but giveth. Gives necessarily implies its
acceptance. Does Christ give life to everyone? No, world is here limited
to the world of the elect.
John 13:1 (NKJV) Now before the feast of the Passover, when Jesus knew
that His hour had come that He should depart from this world to the
Father, having loved His own who were in the world, He loved them to the
Jesus loved those who belonged to Him. God loved Jacob and He hated
Esau. Why? God is sovereign in the exercise of His love.
So, God does not love everyone, and Christ did not die for everyone, the
atonement was limited. Christ died with the intention of saving His
elect. He gave His life "for his sheep" (Jn.10:11). To be sure, the
value of Christ's person and work is infinite. His death, therefore, was
entirely sufficient to atone for all the sins of all the men who ever
lived. But of course, it was not designed to do that. We know this, very
simply, because His mission, as He defined it, was to save "those whom
the Father had given Him" (Jn.6:37-39). Christ died for "His" sheep.
John 17:2 (NKJV) "as You have given Him authority over all flesh, that
He should give eternal life to as many as You have given Him.
John 17:9 (NKJV) "I pray for them. I do not pray for the world but for
those whom You have given Me, for they are Yours.
Notice that Christ doesn't pray for the world, but only for His sheep--
Matthew 20:28 (NKJV) "just as the Son of Man did not come to be served,
but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many."
His life was a ransom, not for all, but for many.
Hebrews 9:28 (NKJV) so Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many.
To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart
from sin, for salvation.
Again, Christ bore the sins of many, not all. The essential issue here
concerns the nature of the atonement. Christ's atonement was only for
the elect, it was limited. So God does not love everybody and Christ did
not die for everybody, but for the elect.
The author of the e-mail also writes, "We can add nothing to Jesus' act
on the cross to save us, NOT EVEN BELIEF. Belief/faith is of God, and
God is the dispenser of it." I agree! Faith is a gift of God, but it is
only given to the elect. Faith is an evidence of God's election:
Acts 13:48 (NKJV) Now when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and
glorified the word of the Lord. And as many as had been appointed to
eternal life believed.
Notice who it was who believed. The ones who were appointed to eternal
life believed. Who appointed them? God! Clearly, the reason that they
believed is because they were appointed.
John 10:24-26 (NKJV) Then the Jews surrounded Him and said to Him, "How
long do You keep us in doubt? If You are the Christ, tell us plainly."
25 Jesus answered them, "I told you, and you do not believe. The works
that I do in My Father's name, they bear witness of Me. 26 "But you do
not believe, because you are not of My sheep, as I said to you.
Many today would say, "You're not of my sheep, because you don't
believe." But that's not what our Lord said; He said, "You don't
believe, because you are not mine, you're not one of my elect." They
didn't believe, because they were not appointed to eternal life.
The author of the e-mail also writes, "The problem with all the belief
passages is that when someone finally REALIZES or 'Believes' what Jesus
ALREADY did for them, they have great Joy in knowing the Lord God loves
them to the point of not failing, because the bible declares that 'God
is love' and that 'love never fails'. Belief is not a 'requirement' to
be returned back to God in spirit when you die. Belief is that thing
that gives us joy RIGHT NOW, KNOWING that it has been accomplished, that
the works of the Devil have been undone, and that Jesus is the savoir of
The Bible doesn't say that those who believe will have joy, but eternal
life. To not believe is to not have eternal life.
John 3:36 (NKJV) "He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and
he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God
abides on him."
Those who believe in Christ have everlasting life, those who don't are
under the abiding wrath of God:
Matthew 25:46 (NKJV) "And these will go away into everlasting
punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
The original word here translated, "punishment" means: "torment, or
suffering inflicted for crime." The noun is only used one other place in
the New Testament-- I John 4:18, "Fear hath torment." The verb from
which the noun is derived is used twice:
Acts 4:21 (NKJV) So when they had further threatened them, they let them
go, finding no way of punishing them, because of the people, since they
all glorified God for what had been done.
2 Peter 2:9 (NKJV) then the Lord knows how to deliver the godly out of
temptations and to reserve the unjust under punishment for the day of
If this word does not teach that the wicked will suffer, no word could
express the idea. The word translated "everlasting" is the Greek aionios.
The New Testament uses this word sixty-six times. Of these, in fifty-one
instances it is used of the happiness of the righteous; in two, of God's
existence; in six, of the church, the Messiah's kingdom; and in the
remaining seven, of the future punishment of the wicked. If in these
seven instances, we attach to the word the idea of limited duration,
consistency requires that the same idea of limited duration should be
given it in the fifty-one cases of its application to the future glory
of the righteous, and the two instances of its application to God's
existence, and the six cases of its appropriation to the reign of
Messiah and the glory and perpetuity of the church.
Both the punishment and the life are designated by the same adjective, "aionios,"
clearly indicating their equal duration. It is regrettable that the
translators used two different adjectives to translate the word, aionios.
If one can be proved to be limited in duration, the other can by the
John 5:24 (NKJV) "Most assuredly, I say to you, he who hears My word and
believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and shall not come
into judgment, but has passed from death into life.
Those who do not believe in Jesus Christ will not see life, they are
under the wrath of God. Believers have already passed from death to life
and will not come into judgement.
Does God have a right to display his wrath? Does He have a right to
display His Justice? Yes! Wrath and Justice are as much a part of His
character as are mercy, grace and love. Many people have difficulty
imagining God finding any glory in His wrath, but He does. He is pleased
with His wrath. It is just as much an attribute of God as is His love.
In his book, Almighty Over All, R.C. Sproul Jr. writes this excellent
statement: "We cannot imagine God looking at His wrath like unwanted
pounds He wants to lose, if only He had the power. No, God is as
delighted with His wrath as He is with all of his attributes. Suppose He
says, 'What I'll do is create something worthy of my wrath, something on
which I can exhibit the glory of my wrath. And on top of that I'll
manifest my mercy by showering grace on some of these creatures
deserving my wrath.'"
The author of the e-mail also writes, "Anyway, I have attached a file
with many scriptures to which one would have to make the word ALL or
WORLD mean some or few in every case. That just can't be done."
John 12:32 (NKJV) "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw
all peoples to Myself."
Are we to take this to mean that God is drawing everyone to Himself? No,
we have already seen that God does not love or choose everybody. And
because of that, He does not draw everybody. We need to look at the
context of this verse:
John 12:20-22 (NKJV) Now there were certain Greeks among those who came
up to worship at the feast. 21 Then they came to Philip, who was from
Bethsaida of Galilee, and asked him, saying, "Sir, we wish to see
Jesus." 22 Philip came and told Andrew, and in turn Andrew and Philip
Here we have Greeks who want to see Jesus. What do Gentiles have to do
with Christ? He is the Jewish Messiah! "All peoples" here is used of
"people of all races." God is going to draw Jews and Gentiles, rich and
poor, bond and free. This passage doesn't teach universalism.
1 Timothy 2:4 (NKJV) who desires all men to be saved and to come to the
knowledge of the truth.
Doesn't this teach that God wants all men to be saved? No! Again, we
must look at the context:
1 Timothy 2:1-3 (NKJV) Therefore I exhort first of all that
supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for
all men, 2 for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a
quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence. 3 For this is
good and acceptable in the sight of God our savoir,
Paul is exhorting them to pray for all men, for kings and for all those
in authority. Christianity, in its beginning stages, was made up
primarily of slaves and common men. Paul says, "Pray for all men, even
kings and rulers, because God will save some of them also." "All men"
means men of every station in life and racial origin. It is a removal of
racial and social distinctions.
2 Peter 3:9 (KJV) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some
men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that
any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Is it God's will that no one perish? Does God want to save all men? I
hope that you can already answer this question based upon what we have
already seen. Again, we must look at the context of this verse:
2 Peter 3:3-4 (KJV) Knowing this first, that there shall come in the
last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, 4 And saying, Where
is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all
things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.
The Second Coming of Christ is in view here, and scoffers are saying,
"Where is He? I thought he promised to come soon." The non-Christian
Jews, Judaizers, and other critics of Christianity were heckling the
saints with the delay in fulfillment of Christ's predictions to destroy
the old and bring in the new heaven and earth. Verse 8 and 9 answer the
question that these scoffers ask:
2 Peter 3:8-9 (KJV) But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing,
that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years
as one day. 9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men
count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any
should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Who are the "beloved" of verse 8? They are Christian Jews. God has not
forgotten His promise; speaking of his promise to return in judgement,
destroying the old heaven and earth and establishing the new heaven and
earth. Notice who Peter is saying would see the "promise" fulfilled?
Some generation way off in the future? No, look at the context (vss. 11,
12, 13,14, 16). Peter is telling his contemporaries, "We are looking for
these things" (vs. 13). "He is longsuffering to us-ward" -- is referring
to the elect Jews as a whole, waiting for the deliverer to come from
ZION. "Not willing that any should perish"-- the antecedent of "any" is
the beloved of verse 1. Clearly, Peter is not saying that God wants to
save everybody. Jay Green's Interlinear Bible puts it this way, "The
Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness;
but is longsuffering to US-ward, not willing that ANY OF US should
perish, but that ALL OF US should come to repentance." The "us"
referring to the elect.
1 John 2:2 (NKJV) And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and
not for ours only but also for the whole world.
This is not teaching that Jesus propitiates for everyone's sins, but
that He is the ONLY propitiation that there is. It is not speaking of
universal propitiation, but of exclusiveness. In other words, there is
no other propitiation other than Jesus Christ. If they don't look to
Christ, there is no one else to propitiate for their sins. Jesus is the
only propitiation for all the world. Peter tells us this in:
Acts 4:10-12 (NKJV) "let it be known to you all, and to all the people
of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you
crucified, whom God raised from the dead, by Him this man stands here
before you whole. 11 "This is the 'stone which was rejected by you
builders, which has become the chief cornerstone.' 12 "Nor is there
salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given
among men by which we must be saved."
So, 1 John 2:2 doesn't support universalism either:
Romans 9:15 (NKJV) For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever
I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have
God says, "the principle upon which I work is this, I will have mercy on
whom I will have mercy." That is a formal declaration of divine
prerogative. Election is based upon the mercy of God. For God to choose
some for salvation is for God to show mercy to those individuals. God is
free to show mercy to whom He will.
God is sovereign in the exercise of His mercy. Mercy is not a right to
which man is entitled. Mercy is that attribute of God by which He pities
and relieves the wretched. The objects of mercy, then, are those who are
miserable, and all misery is the result of sin, hence the miserable are
deserving of punishment, not mercy. To speak of deserving mercy is a
contradiction of terms. God gives mercy to whom He pleases and withholds
mercy as it seems good to himself.
Only those who believe in the Lord Jesus Christ will receive God's
mercy, and only those who God has chosen will believe. God's attributes
of wrath and justice will be displayed on the non-elect. God does not
love, nor will He save "all" men.
This message preached by David B. Curtis on December 21, 2003. Tape
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Date: 19 Nov 2007
The fact that aionos occurs twice in the same sentence (once describing
life, once "punishment" (kolasis in Greek)) no more means they are both
the same in duration than "tall" means the same in height when I say
"the tall man went into the tall building". The only other instance I
know in the NT where aionos occurs twice in one sentence is in Romans
16:25-26. Does it mean the same in duration there when referring to God
as it does when referring to the times of the ages when the mystery was
kept secret? Here clearly aionos (used twice in one sentence) refers
once to that which came to an end (for the mystery is now revealed) and
again to He who has no end. How then do we determine? For one (as in the
"tall man" example above) look at the noun the adjective is attached to.
And in Mt.25:46 it is attached to a noun (kolasis) which constantly in
the language of the day referred to punishment that was corrective. It's
purpose is remedial, not retributive.